SSC JE 2017
Exam DATE-22 JAN 2018
01 - Which of the following represent the crushing strength (MPa) for the good quality stone that are used in the construction of buildings?
1) Less than 20 2) 20 to 60
3) 60 to 80 4) Greater than 100
Answer: Greater than 100
02 - Which of the following is examined to determine the age of timber?
1) Annular ring 2) Sapwood
3) Pith 4) Timber defects
Answer: Annular ring
03 - Which of the following is determined with the help of Le-Chatlier’s device?
1) Abrasion resistance 2) Chemical resistance
3) Soundness 4) Strength
Answer: Soundness
04 - The type of mortar which is used for the construction works carried out in water- logged area is .
1) cement mortar 2) loose mortar
3) mortar of very low consistency 4) mortar having high w/c ratio
Answer: cement mortar
05 - For M 25 grade concrete, the split tensile strength in terms of percentage of its compressive strength is .
1) 7 to 11 % 2) 18 to 28%
3) 28 to 38% 4) 38 to 48%
Answer: 7 to 11%
06 - Distempers are generally used to coat .
1) compound wall
2) external concrete surfaces
3) interior surface which are not exposed to environment
4) wood works
Answer: interior surface which are not exposed to environment
07 - Which of the following is commonly used as retarder in cement?
1) Calcium sulphate 2) Gypsum
3) Potassium carbide 4) Sodium chloride
Answer: Gypsum
08 - In the process of hydration of OPC, to complete all chemical reaction, the water requirement (expressed as the percentage of cement) is .
1) 5 to 8% 2) 8 to 16%
3) 20 to 25% 4) 35 to 45%
Answer: 35 to 45%
09 - The slump test is performed to check the .
1) presence of water in cement 2) ratio of concreting gradients
3) temperature resistance 4) workability of concrete
Answer: workability of concrete
10 - The reason behind the low expansion and shrinkage of the plywood is .
1) plies are placed at the right angles with each other
2) they are glued under the high pressure
3) they are held in the position with the help of adhesives
4) they are prepared with the help of veneers
Answer: plies are placed at the right angles with each other
11 - Which one of the following method is used for the approximate estimation?
1) Both central line and short wall and long wall method
2) Central line method
3) Plinth area method
4) Short wall and long wall method
Answer: Plinth area method
12 - Accuracy in the measurement of the thickness of the slab or sectional dimension of column and beam (in centimetre) should be .
1) 0.5 2) 1
3) 5 4) 10
Answer: 0.5
13 - Deduction at T-junction of the wall for total length of the central line is .
1) half of thickness of wall 2) no deduction
3) thickness of wall 4) twice of the thickness of wall
Answer: half of thickness of wall
14 - For estimation of painted area of semi corrugated asbestos cement sheets, percentage increase in area above plain area is .
1) 0.1 2) 0.14
3) 0.2 4) 0.25
Answer: 0.1
15 - Scrap value of a property may be .
1) both negative or positive 2) constant
3) negative 4) positive
Answer: negative
16 - What is the unit of measuring cornice?
1) Cubic metre 2) Number
3) Running metre 4) Square metre
Answer: Running metre
17 - Calculate the number of bricks in 20 cubic metres brick works.
1) 500 2) 1000
3) 10000 4) 100000
Answer: 10000
18 - Calculate the area (square metre) of the formwork required for a beam of 2 m span and cross section dimension of 400 mm x 200 mm.
1) 0.8 2) 0.1 6
3) 1.2 4) 2
Answer: 0.8
19 - The cross section areas of three sections of an embankment at an interval of 40 m are 10 square metres, 15 square metres and 35 square metres. Calculate the quantity of earthwork for the embankment. Use prismoidal method.
1) 1200 2) 1400
3) 1500 4) 2400
Answer: 1400
20 - Calculate the annual depreciation (Rs.) of a machine having initial cost of Rs. 10,000. The scrap value is Rs. 1,000 and useful life of 30 years.
1) 300 2) 367
3) 1333 4) 333333
Answer: 300
21 - What is the difference between the sum of interior angles of plane triangle and spherical triangle for area of triangle 195 square kilometre on the Earth’s surface?
1) one degree 2) one minute
3) one second 4) one radian
Answer: one second
22 - Which one of the following is the largest scale? 1)1:500 2)1:100
3) 1 :2500 4) 1 :50000
Answer: 1 :500
23 - The quadrantal bearing of the line lies in the third quadrant making angle in clockwise with the north is .
1) 𝑁(𝜃 − 180)°𝐸 2) 𝑁(𝜃 − 180)°𝑊
3) 𝑆(𝜃 − 180)°𝐸 4) 𝑆(𝜃 − 180)°𝑊
Answer: 𝑆(𝜃 − 180)°𝑊
24 - Calculate the volume of the embankment (in cubic metre) using trapezoidal method, if the cross section areas of the three sections of an embankment at an interval of 30 m are 20 square metres, 40 square metres and 50 square metres.
1) 1100
2) 1150
3) 2250
4) 2350
Answer: 2250
25 - Which one is the order of the tapes based on their accuracy?
1) Linen tape > invar tape > metallic tape > steel tape
2) Invar tape > steel tape > metallic tape > linen tape
3) Metallic tape > steel tape > linen t ape > invar tape
4) Metallic tape > steel tape > Invar tape > linen tape
Answer: Invar tape > steel tape > metallic tape > linen tape
26 - In the leveling between two points A and B on the opposite sides of a pond, the level is first set up near the point A and staff reading on A and B are 2.5 m and 2.0 m respectively. Then the level is moved and set near the point B, staff reading on points A and B are 1.2 m and 1.7 m respectively. Calculate the difference of heights between the two points A and B (in metre).
1) 0 2) 0.5
3) 1 4) 1.85
Answer: 0.5
27 - Calculate the combined ion for curvature and refraction (in m) for a distance of 2 km.
1) 0.045
2) 0.135
3) 0.269
4) 3.14
Answer: 0.269
28 - In transit theodolite, the line of the sight can be reversed by revolving the telescope through .
1) 90° in horizontal plane
2) 90° in vertical plane
3) 180° in horizontal plane
4) 180° in vertical plane
Answer: 180° in vertical plane
29 - Which one is the sequence for the temporary adjustment of the theodolite?
1) Centering, elimination of parallax, leveling, and setting
2) Centering, setting, elimination of parallax and leveling
3) Setting, centering, leveling and elimination of parallax
4) Setting, leveling, elimination of parallax and centering
Answer: Setting, centering, leveling and elimination of parallax
30 - Which of the following is used for determining the location of station occupied by the plane table?
1) Both intersection and radiation
2) Intersection method
3) Radiation method
4) Two point problem
Answer: Two point problem
31 - Which of the following is responsible for the formation of residual soil?
1) Glaciers 2) Water
3) Wind 4) N one of these
Answer: None of these
32 - The coefficient of gradation and the coefficient of uniformity of a given soil sample is
1.0 and 4.0 respectively. The ratio of effective size to the diameter through which 30% of the total mass is passed is .
1) 1.25 2) 1.5
3) 1.75 4) 2
Correct Answer: 2
33 - Which of the following shows the order of increasing surface areas of the given soil?
1) Clay < silt < sand < colloids 2) Gravel < silt < colloids < clay
3) Sand < silt < clay < colloids 4) Silt < gravel < colloids < clay
Answer: Sand < silt < clay < colloids
34 - What is the assumption made about back of wall, in the Rankine’s theory of earth pressure?
1) Plane and rough 2) Plane and smooth
3) Vertical and rough 4) Vertical and smooth
Answer: Vertical and smooth
35 - Which of the following is about the viscosity of gas?
1) Inversely proportional to the temperature
2) Increases with an increase in the temperature
3) Independent of pressure
4) Independent of temperature
Answer: Increases with an increase in the temperature
36 - Pressure of 200 kPa is equivalent to the head of z metre of liquid having relative density 1.59. The value of z (m) is .
1) 11.6 2) 11.82
3) 12.82 4) 13.14
Answer: 12.82
37 - Which one of the following statement is about the center of buoyancy?
1) It is the point where buoyant force act.
2) It coincides with the centroid of volume of water displaced
3) It is the point where buoyant force act. and It coincides with the centroid of volume of water displaced
4) It acts outside the body.
Answer: It is the point where buoyant force act. and It coincides with the centroid of volume of water displaced
38 - A longitudinal rectangular surface is hanged into the water such that its top and bottom points are at depth of 1.5 m and 6.0 m respectively. The depth of
center of pressure (m) from the top surface is .
1) 3.8 2) 4.2
3) 4.6 4) 4.8
Answer: 3.8
39 - The velocity potential which follow the equation of continuity is .
1)𝑥2𝑦 2)𝑥2 − 𝑦2
3)cos 𝑥 4) 𝑥2 + 𝑦2
Answer: 𝑥2 − 𝑦2
40 - At what distance from the boundary layer, the value of the wall shear is three times of the turbulent shear?
1) 1/3 R 2) 1/2 R
3) 2/3 R 4) 3/4 R
Answer: 2/3 R
41 - Which of the following statement is about the stream lines and equipotential lines?
1) Both can be drawn graphically for viscous flow around any boundary.
2) Meshes formed by them are always squares.
3) They always meet orthogonally.
4) They can be calculated for all boundary conditions.
Answer: They always meet orthogonally.
42 – The Rankine half body MM is subjected to the two-dimensional flow having velocity
V. The typical stream line is shown in the following diagram. The point A in diagram shows
.
1) point at which velocity is maximum
2) separation point
3) stagnation point
4) stall point
Answer: stagnation point
43 - Which of the following is ratio for Froude number?
1) Compressive force to inertia force. 2) Inertia force to gravity force.
3) Inertia force to tension force. 4) Viscous force to inertia force.
Answer: Inertia force to gravity force.
44 - For the most economical triangular channel section, the angle of sloping sides from the vertical is .
1)30° 2) 45°
3) 60° 4) 75°
Answer: 45°
45 - Method of applying water directly to the root zone of the plant is called .
1) check flooding 2) drip method
3) furrow method 4) sprinkler irrigation
Answer: drip method
46 - A field of 500 hectares is to be irrigated for a particular crop having 100 days base period. The total depth of water required by the crop is 100 cm. Calculate the duty of the water (in hectares per cubic metre).
1) 8.64 2) 57.8 7
3) 86.4 4) 864
Answer: 864
47 - The traffic volume of a roadway is defined as the multiplication of .
1) speed and time headway 2) speed and distance way
3) traffic density and speed 4) time head way an d distance headway
Answer: traffic density and speed
48 - Calculate the equivalent radius (cm) of the resisting section of 20 cm slab, if the ratio of radius of wheel load distribution to the thickness of the slab is 2.
1) 20 2) 35 .6
3) 40 4) 40 .9
Answer: 40
49 - On peak hourly demand, what is the maximum daily consumption for the city which have average daily consumption of 100,000 m3 ?
1) 140000 2) 170000
3) 200000 4) 270000
Answer: 270000
50 - For which of the following, distribution mains is designed?
1) Average daily demand 2) Annual peak demand
3) Monthly peak demand 4) Maximum hourly demand on maximum day
Answer: Maximum hourly demand on maximum day
51 - Which of the following statements is true?
A. Most of the loads applied to a building are environmental load.
B. Most of the loads are dead followed by live loads.
1) Only A 2) Only B
3) Both A and B 4) Neither A nor B
Answer: Only B
52 - How does an increase in the pitch of the roof affects the amount of load that can be placed on it?
1) It increases 2) It decreases
3) Remains constant 4) Depends up on case
Answer: It increases
53 - What will be the rain load (in psf) if ds is 2 inches and dh is 1 inches?
1) 5.2 2) 10.4
3) 15.6 4) 20.8
Answer: 15.6
54 - Concrete is:-
1) Good in compression, good in tension 2) Good in compression, weak in tension
3) Weak in compression, weak in tension 4) Weak in compression, good in tension
Answer: Good in compression, weak in tension
55 - If in planar system, X parts/members are there with Y no. of forces, then condition for statically determinacy is:-
1) Y < 3X 2) Y > 3 X
3) Y= 3 X 4) Non e of these
Answer: Y= 3X
56 - If a system has more equations of equilibrium than no. of forces, then the system is:-
1) Improperly constrained 2) Partially constrained
3) Stable 4) None of these
Answer: None of these
57 - Which of the following material is not used in making trusses?
1) Wooden struts 2) Metal bars
3) Channel 4) Concrete
Answer: Concrete
58- In a truss it is assumed that the members are joined by .
1) Rough pins 2) Smooth pins
3) Either rough or smooth pins 4) None of these
Answer: Smooth pins
59 - What is the major difference between truss and beam?
1) Beam can’t transmit load in vertical direction while truss can
2) Truss can’t transmit load in vertical direction while beam c an
3) Beam can’t transmit load in axial direction while truss can
4) Truss can’t transmit load in axial direction while beam can
Answer: Beam can’t transmit load in axial direction while truss can
60 - Given that J is no. of joints. B and R are no. of members and no. of reactions. If B = 4, R = 3 and J = 4, then the truss is:-
1) Statically determinate 2) Statically indeterminate and stable
3) Stable 4) Unstable
Answer: Unstable
61 - Which IS code gives details regarding water to be used in concrete?
1) IS 456 2) IS 383
3) IS 565 4) IS 3012 Answer: IS 456
62 - Which of the below is an example of plasticizer?
1) Hydroxylated carboxylic acid 2) Fluoro-silicate
3) Gypsum 4) Surkhi
Answer: Hydroxylated carboxylic acid
63 - How many methods of batching of concrete are there?
1) 2 2) 3
3) 5 4) 6
Answer: 2
64- Concrete is generally placed on a:
1) Form work 2) Stand
3) Mould 4) Platform
Answer: Form work
65 - The effective width of a column strip of a flat slab is taken as
1) one-fourth the width of the panel 2) half the width of the panel
3) half the diameter of the column 4) the diameter of the column
Answer: half the width of the panel
66 - Permanent dimension changes due to loading of concrete is termed as:
1) Strain 2) Extent
3) Creep 4) Ambit
Answer: Creep
67 - In design of R.C.C. structures, the tensile strength of concrete is taken as: 1) 5N/mm 2 2) 2N/mm2
3) 0.3N/mm 2 4) None of these
Answer: None of these
68- Flexure strength of concrete is determined as:
1) Modulus of rigidity 2) Modulus of rupture
3) Modulus of plasticity 4) Modulus of elasticity
Answer: Modulus of rupture
69 - Properties of concrete can broadly be divided into:
1) 1 2) 4
3) 2 4) 3
Answer: 1
1 70 - Which IS code gives specifications about cement plaster?
1) IS 1500 2) IS 1221
3) IS 1400 4) IS 1661
Answer: IS 1661
71 - In a lime-cement plaster, ratio 1:1:6 corresponds to:
1) Lime:cement:sand 2) Cement:Lime:sand
3) Lime:sand: gravel 4) Cement:sand:gravel
Answer: Cement:Lime:sand
72 - On which of the following does the proportion of ingredients of concrete depend upon?
1) bulking of sand 2) water content
3) absorption and workability 4) All option are correct
Answer: All option are correct
73 - Which of the following statements is false?
1) Workability of the concrete mix decreases with an increase in the moisture content
2) Concrete for which preliminary tests are conducted, is called controlled concrete
3) Bulking of sand depends upon the fineness of grains
4) All option are correct
Answer: Workability of the concrete mix decreases with an increase in the moisture content
74 - Which of the following statements is false?
1) Space between the exterior walls of a warehouse and bag piles should be 30 cm
2) Cement bags should preferably be piled on wooden planks
3) Cement bags should be placed such that bags of one layer does not touch the bags of the adjacent layer
4) None of these
Answer: Cement bags should be placed such that bags of one layer does not touch the bags of the adjacent layer
75 - Which of the following statements is false?
1) With passage of time, the strength of cement increases
2) With passage of time, the strength of cement decreases
3) After a period of 24 months, the strength of cement reduces to 50%
4) The concrete made with storage deteriorated cement gains strength with time
Answer: With passage of time, the strength of cement increases
77 - For a concrete mix 1:3:6 and water cement ratio 0.6 both by weight, what is the quantity of water required per bag?
1) 10 kg 2) 12 kg
3) 14 kg 4) None of these Answer: None of these
78 - Transport of concrete by pumps, is done for a distance of 1) 100 m 2) 200 m
3) 300 m 4) 400 m
Answer: 400 m
79 - The compression in PSC is done by of high-strength tendons.
1) Compression 2) Tensioning
3) Shearing 4) Bending
Answer: Tensioning
80 - In which beam tension capacity of steel is greater than combined compression capacity of steel and concrete?
1) Over-reinforced 2) Under-reinforced
3) Singly reinforced 4) Doubly reinforced
Answer: Doubly reinforced
82- For a circular slab carrying a uniformly distributed load, the ratio of the maximum negative to maximum positive radial moment is
1) 1 2) 2
3) 3 4) 4
Answer: 2
83 – If permissible compressive stress in concrete is 𝟓𝟎 𝒌𝒈/𝒄𝒎𝟐, tensile strength in steel is 𝟏𝟒𝟎𝟎 𝒌𝒈/𝒄𝒎𝟐 and modular ratio is 18, the depth of the beam is
1) 𝑑 = 0.11765×𝐵.𝑀.
𝑏𝑟𝑒𝑎𝑑𝑡ℎ
3) 𝑑 = 0.33765×𝐵.𝑀.
𝑏𝑟𝑒𝑎𝑑𝑡ℎ
2) 𝑑 = 0.22765×𝐵.𝑀.
𝑏𝑟𝑒𝑎𝑑𝑡ℎ
4) 𝑑 = 0.44765×𝐵.𝑀.
𝑏𝑟𝑒𝑎𝑑𝑡ℎ
Answer: 𝑑 = 0.11765×𝐵.𝑀.
𝑏𝑟𝑒𝑎𝑑𝑡ℎ
84- The breadth of a ribbed slab containing two bars must be between
1) 6 cm t o 7.5 cm 2) 8 cm to 10 cm
3) 10 cm to 12 cm 4) None of these
Answer: 8 cm to 10 cm
85 - A foundation rests on which of the following?
1) base of the foundation 2) sub grade
3) foundation soil 4) Both Sub grade and foundation soil
Answer: Both Sub grade and foundation soil
86- Which of the following statements is true?
1) To ensure uniform pressure distribution, the thickness of the foundation is kept uniform throughout
2) To ensure uniform pressure distribution, the thickness of the foundation is increased gradually towards the edge
3) To ensure uniform pressure distribution, the thickness of the foundation is decreased gradually towards the edge
4) To ensure uniform pressure distribution, the thickness of the foundation is kept zero at the edge
Answer: To ensure uniform pressure distribution, the thickness of the foundation is decreased gradually towards the edge
87 - The weight of a foundation is assumed as which of the following?
1) 5% of wall weight 2) 7% of wall weight
3) 10% of wall weight 4) 12% of wall weight
Answer: 10% of wall weight
88 - If the width of the foundation for two equal columns is restricted, the shape of the footing generally adopted is
1) Square 2) rectangular
3) trapezoidal 4) triangular
Answer: trapezoidal
87 - Maximum shear stress theory for the failure of a material at the elastic limit is known as
1) Guest’ s or Trecas’ theory 2) St.Venant’s theory
3) Rankine’s theory 4) Haig’s theory
Answer: Guest’s or Trecas’ theory
90- When not specified, the volume of steel in R.C.C. work is taken as:-
1) 1% to 1.6% of R.C.C. volume
2) 2% to 4% of R.C.C. volume
3) 4% to 6% of R.C.C. volume
4) 0.6% to 1% of R.C.C. volue
Answer: 0.6% to 1% of R.C.C. volume
91 - The ratio of maximum shear stress to average shear stress of a circular beam is: 1) 2/3 2) 3/2
3) 3/4 4) 4/3 Answer: 4/3
92 - The property of a material by which it can be beaten or rolled into plates, is called
1) ductility 2) plasticity
3) elasticity 4) None of these
Answer: None of these
93 - What is the limit to Poisson's ratio?
1) 0.1 2) 0.2
3) 0.3 4) None of these
Answer: None of these
94 - Among the following, which is least elastic?
1) Iron 2) Copper
3) Both Copper and Silver 4) Rubber
Answer -Rubber
95 - Two bars of different materials are of the same size and are subjected to same tensile forces. If the bars have unit elongations in the ratio of 4 : 7, then the
ratio of modulius of elasticity of the two materials is
1) 4:7 2) 4:10
3) 16:49 4) None of these
Answer: None of these
96 - If a composite bar of steel and copper is heated, then the copper bar will be under:
1) tension 2) shear
3) torsion 4) None of these
Answer: None of these
97 - Pick up the incorrect statement from the following :
The torsional resistance of a shaft is directly proportional to
1) modulus of rigidity 2) angle of twist
3) reciprocal of the length of the shaft 4) moment of inertia of the shaft section
Answer: moment of inertia of the shaft section.
99 Net sectional area of a tension member, is equal to its cross section area .
1) plus the area of the rivet holes 2) divided by the area of rivet holes
3) multiplied by the area of the rivet holes 4) minus the area of the rivet holes
Answer: minus the area of the rivet holes
100 - When a tension member consists of two channel sections, the allowance for rivet hole is made for two holes from
1) each web
2) each flange
3) each web or one hole from each flange whichever is more
4) each web or one hole from each flange whichever is less
Answer: each web or one hole from each flange whichever is less
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